The
conjugation of ‘to be’ in English is an instructive example of a conjugational
paradigm formed by a coalition of verb forms with different histories. We
normally expect the “grammatical forms” of a verb to consist of one and the
same root with different inflectional endings. Thus, for example, Latin laudāre
‘to praise’ has the following present-tense forms in the active voice:
1sg. laudō, 2sg. laudās, 3sg. laudat
1pl. laudāmus, 2pl. laudātis, 3pl. laudant
and the
corresponding passives:
laudor, laudāris, laudātur
laudāmur, laudāminī, laudantur
and, for
example, pluperfect subjunctives:
laudāvissem, laudāvissēs, laudāvisset
laudāvissēmus, laudāvissētis, laudāvissent
... and numerous others, all of them containing the root laud-, extended with the
characteristic suffix of the “1st conjugation” (-ā-) to form the stem laudā-,
to which inflectional endings are attached. A paradigm like this is genetically
uniform (and highly regular as well).
But some
paradigms look less regular. Compare the present-tense conjugation of ‘to be’
in several Indo-European languages (OCS = Old Church Slavonic):
Language
|
1sg.
|
2sg.
|
3sg.
|
1pl.
|
2pl.
|
3pl.
|
sum
|
es
|
est
|
sumus
|
estis
|
sunt
|
|
eimí
|
eî
|
estí
|
esmén
|
esté
|
eisí
|
|
im
|
is
|
ist
|
sijum
|
sijuþ
|
sind
|
|
jesmĭ
|
jesi
|
jestŭ
|
jesmŭ
|
jeste
|
sǫtŭ
|
|
ásmi
|
ási
|
ásti
|
smás
|
sthá
|
sánti
|
|
ēsmi
|
ēssi
|
ēszi
|
ēsweni
|
ēsteni
|
asanzi
|
The overall similarity is quite striking; and it is also clear that the IE
languages share some characteristic irregularities in the conjugation of this
verb. For example, if we compare the 3sg. and 3pl. forms, and separate the
ending from the root, we see that the original conjugation must have been
something like this:
[1] 3sg. *es-ti, 3pl. *s-Vnti
where *V is
a vowel whose precise quality is hard to determine. Some of the attested forms point to PIE *e,
others to *o. (The
asterisks preceding these forms mean: “Attention! This is a reconstruction, not
a directly attested word or sound!”)
The Vedic
evidence suggests that the root has the shape es- in the singular and s- in the plural
because of a shifting stress pattern. Indo-Europeanists traditionally prefer
to use the word “accent” because it is thought that syllable prominence was
marked by pitch variations rather than greater loudness in the common ancestor
of the IE family. However, there must have been a stage in the deep prehistory
of IE when prominence was correlated with articulatory effort and the “accent”
was in fact some sort of dynamic stress similar to that found in Modern English. The absence of stress often caused the phonetic reduction or complete loss of vowels. In this case, the vowel of the root *es was reduced to zero, leaving only *s, if the stress was on the inflectional ending and the root
was unstressed.
To tell the truth, the
reconstruction in [1] counted as “standard PIE” at the end of the 19th century. More recent decades have brought some progress in our understanding of
the PIE grammatical system, and we now use a more sophisticated reconstruction (with the root rewritten as *h₁es- and the stress shifting between the root and the 3pl. ending *-enti):
[2] 3sg. *h₁és-ti, 3 pl. *h₁s-énti
A Hittite ritual text featuring some laryngeal fossils
|
There were also
other verbs of this kind:
[3] 3sg. *gʷʰén-ti, 3pl. *gʷʰn-énti ‘strike, kill’
They don’t
look particularly irregular when you look at the PIE reconstruction. However, since
the presence or absence of a full vowel often made a difference in their later
development, the contrast between the 3sg. and 3pl. forms increased in some of
the daughter languages. For example, the Vedic reflexes look like this:
[4] 3sg. hánti, 3pl. gʰnánti
where the h of the singular (pronounced as a semi-voiced glottal fricative = IPA [ɦ]) represents the Vedic outcome of an aspirated velar stop palatalised
before a front vowel. The full development was something like this:
[5] *gʷʰén-ti > *gʰénti > *ǰʰénti > *ǰʰánti > hánti.
Note that
although *e became a low central vowel (*a) in the Indic languages, it first affected
the pronunciation of the preceding consonant in a way which betrays its
original front quality.
So,
although pairs like Sanskrit ásti and sánti, Latin est and sunt, Old English is and sind,
etc., look rather different, they are, at least from the historical point of
view, forms of “the same” word. But what about forms like English be and been?
In Old English, the verb ‘to be’ even had an alternative present tense in which all
the verb forms had an initial /b/:
[6] 1sg. bēo, 2sg. bist, 3sg. biþ; pl. bēoþThey do not seem to be connected with the root *h₁es- in any way. Where did they come from, then? This will be the topic of the next posting.
It is remarkable that the 3pl form preserves the zero-grade in many languages, but the remaining plural forms seem to have undergone analogical levelling. OCS is a very clear case in point, but also Latin - here analogy seems to have worked 1sg - 1pl, 2sg - 2pl. Why don't we have analogical levelling in 3pl? Sturtevant must have been right about the irregular working of analogy.
ReplyDeleteIt is by no means certain that the original stress in the 1/2pl. was on the inflectional ending. The 3pl. form, which is used far more frequently may have been unique in having a stressable (underlyingly accented) vowel. If so, it's the Sanskrit-type forms that are secondary (3pl. being the source of analogical influence). The relative rarity of 1/2pl. forms (not to mention duals) is the reason why I'm not using them to illustrate the stress shift.
ReplyDeletePS. In Latin, sumus was likely influenced by sum, which is itself due to enclitic reduction: *esmi > *esm̥ > esom (attested!) > som > sum.
ReplyDeleteSo why is the Hittite 3pl asanzi and not sanzi? Was the *h₁ still present, and the a- is a real or orthographical epenthetic vowel? Is Kloekhorst on to something when he reads e-es-zi as ʔeszi instead of ēszi?
ReplyDeleteThere's no independent evidence that *h₁ was vocalised in PIE or that it was reflected as a glottal stop in Anatolian. The a ot asanzi 'they are', adanzi 'they eat', appanzi 'they take', akuanzi 'they drink' must be a secondary "weak grade": a schwa-type epenthetic vowel was inserted to break up some word-initial obstruent clusters in the passage from PIE to Proto-Anatolian. We have the same alternation in ses-/sas- 'sleep', and also in the ablauting noun tēkan, gen. taknās (PIE *dʰǵʰm-').
DeleteSo the cluster that was broken up was *h₁s-, meaning that *h₁ didn't completely disappear without a trace in Anatolian, even though it didn't remain as a phoneme, right?
DeleteThere are no direct reflexes of *h₁ in the historically attested Anatolian languages, but there are reasons to believe that it survived into Proto-Anatolian. For example, the assimilation rule *-VRHV- > *-VRRV- operates also when *H = *h₁.
DeleteThe case of asanzi etc. doesn't sound qualitatively different from the Greek reflex of *HC-, where presumably an epenthetic schwa was inserted and then colored by the laryngeal. Yet we say that Greek has a reflex of initial preconsonantal *h₁ and Anatolian doesn't. Is that simply because in Anatolian the epenthesis pattern applies more broadly than just to *HC-?
DeleteI wouldn't say that the Greek "prothetic" vowel is a direct reflex of the laryngeal (precisely because it reflects a post-PIE epenthetic schwa, not the laryngeal itself), but this may be just a terminological preference. In Anatolian, however, we can distinguish consonantal reflexes of (some of) the laryngeals from such indirect traces ("laryngeal effects") as the initial vowel of asanzi.
DeleteIs this the latest word on the subject?
Delete